Wednesday, February 19, 2025

Delhi Earthquake: Causes, Seismic Zones, and Preparedness

 

Delhi Earthquake: Causes, Seismic Zones, and Preparedness



Context: A 4.0-magnitude earthquake struck Delhi-NCR, with its epicenter at Dhaula Kuan. The tremors were felt across the region, raising concerns about Delhi's vulnerability to seismic activity.


What Are Earthquakes?

An earthquake is a sudden release of energy in the Earth's crust that generates seismic waves, causing ground shaking. Earthquakes occur due to the movement of tectonic plates along fault lines.

Key Causes of Earthquakes:

  1. Tectonic Plate Movement: The Earth's lithosphere is divided into plates that constantly move. When they collide, slide past each other, or diverge, stress builds up along fault lines.
  2. Sudden Release of Energy: When accumulated stress exceeds the rock’s capacity to withstand it, the energy is released, causing seismic waves and ground shaking.

Shallow Earthquakes:

  • Depth: These earthquakes occur close to the Earth's surface (typically 5-10 km deep).
  • Impact: Due to their proximity to the surface, shallow earthquakes cause more damage than deeper ones.

Reasons Behind the Delhi Earthquake

Delhi’s vulnerability to earthquakes is linked to its location near multiple fault lines.

  1. Seismic Faults:

    • Delhi-Hardwar Ridge: A significant tectonic structure running through Delhi, known for moderate seismic activity.
    • Mahendragarh-Dehradun Fault: Another active fault line contributing to Delhi’s earthquake risk.
  2. Tectonic Stress:

    • The tremors result from stress accumulation along these fault lines. When the stress is suddenly released, seismic waves are generated, causing ground shaking.
  3. Soil Composition:

    • Soft Alluvial Soil: Some areas in Delhi have soft alluvial soil, which amplifies seismic waves. This amplification can lead to more intense shaking and potential structural damage.

India’s Earthquake Zoning System

India’s seismic zoning map classifies the country into four seismic zones based on the risk of earthquakes.

Seismic Zones in India:

  1. Zone 5:

    • Description: Highest seismic risk.
    • Examples: Himalayan region, Northeastern states, Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
  2. Zone 4:

    • Description: High risk of earthquakes.
    • Examples: Delhi, Jammu & Kashmir, Bihar.
  3. Zone 3:

    • Description: Moderate risk zone.
    • Examples: Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata.
  4. Zone 2:

    • Description: Low risk of seismic activity.
    • Examples: Deccan Plateau.

Delhi is classified under Seismic Zone 4, indicating a high susceptibility to earthquakes and the need for adequate disaster preparedness measures.


How Are Earthquakes Measured?

Several scales are used globally to measure the magnitude and intensity of earthquakes:

  1. Richter Scale:

    • Purpose: Measures the magnitude or total energy released by an earthquake.
    • Logarithmic Nature: Each whole-number increase represents 10 times stronger shaking and 32 times more energy release.
  2. Modified Mercalli Scale (MMS):

    • Purpose: Measures the intensity of the earthquake based on the shaking and damage experienced.
    • Scale Range: Ranges from 1 (Not Felt) to 12 (Total Destruction).
  3. Medvedev-Sponheuer-Karnik (MSK) Scale:

    • Widely used in India’s seismic hazard assessments to estimate potential earthquake damage.
    • Useful for planning disaster response and designing earthquake-resistant structures.

Why Delhi Needs Earthquake Preparedness

Given its classification under Seismic Zone 4, Delhi is highly vulnerable to earthquakes. Effective disaster management, urban planning, and public awareness are critical to mitigating the risks.

Key Measures to Improve Preparedness:

  1. Earthquake-Resistant Construction:

    • Buildings should be constructed or retrofitted to withstand seismic activity.
  2. Public Awareness Campaigns:

    • Educating the public on earthquake safety measures, such as identifying safe spaces and preparing emergency kits.
  3. Disaster Management Plans:

    • Strengthening the coordination between local authorities, hospitals, and disaster response teams.
  4. Early Warning Systems:

    • Implementing technology to detect seismic activity early and issue warnings.

Conclusion

The 4.0-magnitude earthquake in Delhi is a stark reminder of the region’s seismic vulnerability. By understanding the causes, risks, and measurement of earthquakes, authorities and citizens can take proactive measures to improve earthquake preparedness and ensure public safety.


MCQs for UPSC CSE Based on Delhi Earthquake

1. Which fault line contributes to seismic activity in the Delhi region?
a) San Andreas Fault
b) Mahendragarh-Dehradun Fault
c) East Anatolian Fault
d) Himalayan Thrust Fault

Answer: b) Mahendragarh-Dehradun Fault

2. What is the highest seismic risk zone according to India’s seismic zoning map?
a) Zone 2
b) Zone 3
c) Zone 4
d) Zone 5

Answer: d) Zone 5

3. Which soil type amplifies seismic waves, leading to increased shaking in Delhi?
a) Rocky soil
b) Sandy soil
c) Alluvial soil
d) Loamy soil

Answer: c) Alluvial soil

4. Which scale measures the magnitude of an earthquake?
a) Modified Mercalli Scale
b) Richter Scale
c) Beaufort Scale
d) Fujita Scale

Answer: b) Richter Scale

5. Delhi is classified under which seismic zone in India?
a) Zone 2
b) Zone 3
c) Zone 4
d) Zone 5

Answer: c) Zone 4


Mains Question for UPSC CSE

"India’s capital, Delhi, falls under Seismic Zone 4. Discuss the causes behind the seismic vulnerability of Delhi and suggest measures to improve earthquake preparedness and disaster resilience in the region."

Also Read:

NAKSHA Project

 

NAKSHA Project


Introduction

The National Geospatial Knowledge-based Land Survey of Urban Habitations (NAKSHA) is a groundbreaking pilot project launched by the Government of India to modernize urban land records. Covering 152 Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) across 26 States and 3 Union Territories (UTs), this initiative aims to leverage advanced geospatial technology to ensure transparency, efficiency, and accuracy in property ownership records.

This project is expected to play a significant role in improving urban planning, reducing land disputes, and supporting sustainable development.


What is the NAKSHA Project?

The NAKSHA (National Geospatial Knowledge-based Land Survey of Urban Habitations) project is an advanced land survey initiative driven by geospatial technology. It is designed to update and digitize land records in urban areas, ensuring that property ownership is well-documented and verifiable.

Nodal Ministry

The project is led by the Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India, and implemented by the Department of Land Resources in collaboration with the Survey of India and National Informatics Centre Services Inc. (NICSI).


Aims & Objectives of the NAKSHA Project

  1. Modernize Urban Land Records:
    • Establish accurate and updated land ownership records using geospatial data.
  2. Enhance Urban Planning:
    • Facilitate the development of smart cities and modern urban infrastructure with reliable land data.
  3. Reduce Land Disputes:
    • Minimize property disputes through clear, verifiable ownership records.
  4. Promote Transparency:
    • Develop a Web-GIS-based IT system to make land records easily accessible to all stakeholders.
  5. Support Sustainable Development:
    • Improve urban governance and promote effective land resource management for sustainable urban growth.

Key Features of the NAKSHA Project

1. Drone-Based Land Survey

The project uses drones for high-precision aerial surveys, enabling accurate mapping and boundary identification. This technology ensures comprehensive land surveys and eliminates errors that can arise from manual methods.

2. Web-GIS Platform

An IT-based land record management system powered by Geographic Information Systems (GIS) is a core component of the NAKSHA project. This platform allows real-time data access, ensuring transparency and accountability in land management.

3. Public Accessibility

The NAKSHA project enables citizens to access digital land records, promoting transparency and simplifying property verification processes. This feature aligns with the government's "ease of living" initiative.

4. Pilot Launch in 152 ULBs

The project will initially be implemented across 152 Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) in 26 States and 3 Union Territories (UTs).

5. Estimated Cost

The NAKSHA project is funded at ₹194 crore, with 100% financing provided by the Government of India.


Importance of the NAKSHA Project

1. Transparency & Trust

Digital records promote transparency in real estate transactions and reduce the potential for corruption. Accurate and verifiable records instill trust among stakeholders.

2. Ease of Living

Simplified property documentation processes make it easier for citizens to verify ownership and resolve disputes quickly, contributing to improved quality of life.

3. Efficient Urban Governance

Accurate land records enable local authorities to make informed decisions about urban planning and resource allocation, improving governance and infrastructure development.

4. Smart City Development

Reliable geospatial data facilitates the development of smart cities, promoting modern infrastructure and sustainable growth.


Challenges & Proposed Solutions

Challenges

  1. Data Security:
    • Ensuring the safety and privacy of digital land records from cyber threats.
  2. Technological Training:
    • Training local officials and citizens to effectively use geospatial and IT platforms.
  3. Public Adoption:
    • Building trust in the accuracy and accessibility of digital records.

Solutions

  1. Robust Cybersecurity Measures:
    • Implement data encryption and multi-layered authentication to protect land records.
  2. Training Programs:
    • Conduct workshops and training sessions for officials and the public to ensure smooth adoption of the system.
  3. Community Engagement:
    • Launch awareness campaigns to educate the public on the benefits of digital land records and promote transparency.

Future of the NAKSHA Project

The NAKSHA project is expected to become a cornerstone of urban governance in India. By expanding its reach across more cities, it will transform how land records are managed, supporting sustainable urban development and reducing property-related disputes.


Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQs) for UPSC CSE

  1. Which ministry is responsible for the implementation of the NAKSHA project?
    a) Ministry of Home Affairs
    b) Ministry of Urban Development
    c) Ministry of Rural Development
    d) Ministry of Agriculture

    Answer: c) Ministry of Rural Development

  2. What technology does the NAKSHA project primarily use for land surveys?
    a) Satellite Imagery
    b) Ground-Penetrating Radar
    c) Drone-Based Surveys
    d) Manual Surveys

    Answer: c) Drone-Based Surveys

  3. Which organization collaborates with the Department of Land Resources to implement NAKSHA?
    a) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
    b) Survey of India
    c) Geological Survey of India
    d) National Highway Authority of India

    Answer: b) Survey of India

  4. What is the estimated cost of the NAKSHA project?
    a) ₹100 crore
    b) ₹150 crore
    c) ₹194 crore
    d) ₹250 crore

    Answer: c) ₹194 crore


Mains Question for UPSC CSE

"Discuss the significance of the NAKSHA project in transforming urban land records in India. How can technology-driven initiatives like NAKSHA promote transparency, reduce disputes, and enhance urban governance?"

Also Read:

TrailGuard AI: Revolutionizing Wildlife Conservation in India

 

TrailGuard AI: Revolutionizing Wildlife Conservation in India


Source: The Hindu
Context: The Similipal Tiger Reserve in Odisha has successfully implemented AI-enabled TrailGuard cameras, reducing poaching incidents by 80%. This breakthrough highlights the effectiveness of AI-powered surveillance in protecting India's wildlife.


What is TrailGuard AI?

TrailGuard AI is an advanced surveillance system designed to combat poaching and illegal wildlife trade in protected forest areas. It leverages artificial intelligence (AI) to provide real-time monitoring and alerts to authorities, enabling rapid action to safeguard wildlife.

Developer Information:

TrailGuard AI was developed by Nightjar Technologies, a Gurgaon-based social impact enterprise specializing in conservation surveillance through cutting-edge technology.


How Does TrailGuard AI Work?

TrailGuard AI employs a combination of sensors, cameras, and AI algorithms to detect, classify, and respond to threats in real-time. Here is a step-by-step breakdown:

  1. Movement Detection:

    • TrailGuard AI cameras remain in low-power mode to conserve energy.
    • They activate automatically when movement is detected in the monitored area.
  2. Object Classification:

    • The built-in AI chip analyzes captured images and classifies them as either ‘animal,’ ‘human,’ or ‘vehicle.’
    • This step ensures that only potential threats are flagged for immediate action.
  3. Instant Alert System:

    • If a threat (e.g., human presence) is detected, the system transmits the image within 30-40 seconds to a centralized control room.
    • This real-time transmission helps authorities assess the situation and decide the appropriate response.
  4. Rapid Response:

    • Forest officials are alerted via WhatsApp messages and Very High Frequency (VHF) radio.
    • Field rangers are mobilized to intercept poachers or investigate suspicious activities.
  5. Identification & Arrest:

    • Intelligence teams analyze the captured images, identify suspects, and conduct house raids if necessary.
    • The evidence is used to forward cases for prosecution.

Key Features & Functions of TrailGuard AI

TrailGuard AI comes with several key features that make it effective and scalable for wildlife protection:

1. Compact Design

  • The camera unit is pen-sized, and the battery unit is notepad-sized.
  • A 2-meter cable connects both units, making it easy to conceal in dense vegetation.

2. Long Battery Life

  • TrailGuard AI can operate for 6 months to 1 year without requiring frequent maintenance.
  • This extended battery life reduces the need for on-site visits, enhancing operational efficiency.

3. High-Speed Image Transmission

  • Images are transmitted to authorities within 30-40 seconds via a cellular network.
  • This rapid communication is critical for timely interventions.

4. Cost-Effective

  • Each unit costs ₹50,000–53,000, making it affordable for large-scale deployment in multiple locations.

5. Wide Adoption in India

  • TrailGuard AI is currently deployed in 5 Indian states across 14 locations, including:
    • Kanha Tiger Reserve (Madhya Pradesh)
    • Dudhwa National Park (Uttar Pradesh)
  • The successful implementation in the Similipal Tiger Reserve (Odisha) has demonstrated its effectiveness, with an 80% reduction in poaching incidents.

Benefits of TrailGuard AI in Wildlife Conservation

  • Enhanced Surveillance: Continuous monitoring reduces the chances of poaching.
  • Real-Time Response: Rapid alerts ensure timely action by forest officials.
  • Cost Efficiency: Affordable units enable larger deployment, maximizing coverage in protected areas.
  • Data Collection: AI-driven classification generates valuable data for wildlife research and policy-making.

Challenges and Future Scope

Despite its benefits, TrailGuard AI faces some challenges:

  • Connectivity Issues: Remote forest areas may lack cellular networks for real-time image transmission.
  • Battery Limitations: Although TrailGuard AI has long battery life, further improvements could reduce maintenance frequency.
  • Training and Awareness: Forest officials need proper training to interpret alerts and respond effectively.

Future Scope: Continuous innovation in AI and connectivity can further enhance TrailGuard AI’s effectiveness. Integrating satellite communication, improving battery efficiency, and expanding coverage to more reserves can revolutionize wildlife conservation in India.


Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQs) for UPSC CSE

1. Which organization developed TrailGuard AI?
A) Indian Institute of Science (IISc)
B) Nightjar Technologies
C) National Informatics Centre (NIC)
D) Indian Forest Service

Answer: B) Nightjar Technologies


2. What is the primary function of TrailGuard AI?
A) Soil erosion control
B) Air quality monitoring
C) Wildlife surveillance to combat poaching
D) Forest reforestation

Answer: C) Wildlife surveillance to combat poaching


3. Which of the following reserves in India have deployed TrailGuard AI?

  1. Similipal Tiger Reserve
  2. Kanha Tiger Reserve
  3. Gir National Park
  4. Dudhwa National Park

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2, and 4 only
C) 2, 3, and 4 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: B) 1, 2, and 4 only


4. How long does TrailGuard AI take to transmit images to the control room?
A) 2 minutes
B) 1 hour
C) 30-40 seconds
D) 24 hours

Answer: C) 30-40 seconds


5. What classification categories are used by TrailGuard AI’s AI chip?
A) Animal, human, vehicle
B) Tree, human, soil
C) Cloud, animal, vehicle
D) Fire, human, animal

Answer: A) Animal, human, vehicle


Mains Question for UPSC CSE

Q. Discuss the role of AI-powered surveillance systems like TrailGuard AI in wildlife conservation. Highlight their benefits, limitations, and potential for large-scale adoption in India.

Also Read:

Rarest of Rare Doctrine

 

Rarest of Rare Doctrine


Introduction to Rarest of Rare Doctrine

The 'Rarest of Rare' doctrine governs the imposition of the death penalty in India. It ensures that capital punishment is awarded only in exceptional cases that shock society’s collective conscience.

Origin and Key Judgments

  1. Jagmohan Singh vs. State of Uttar Pradesh (1972): Upheld the constitutionality of the death penalty but left application to judicial discretion.
  2. Bachan Singh vs. State of Punjab (1980): Established the doctrine for awarding the death penalty only in rare cases.
  3. Machhi Singh vs. State of Punjab (1983): Defined five categories for the death penalty:
    • Manner of Crime: Exceptionally brutal or heinous.
    • Motive of Crime: Shows extreme moral depravity.
    • Impact on Society: Causes social outrage (e.g., hate crimes).
    • Magnitude of Crime: Mass killings or multiple murders.
    • Victim’s Vulnerability: Involves children, women, elderly, or disabled persons.
  4. Mithu vs. State of Punjab (1983): Struck down Section 303 IPC (mandatory death penalty) and emphasized judicial discretion in capital punishment.

Significance in UPSC Exam Syllabus

  • GS Paper 2 (Polity & Governance): Constitutional safeguards, judicial interpretations, and capital punishment jurisprudence.
  • GS Paper 4 (Ethics, Integrity & Aptitude): Ethical dilemmas in awarding the death penalty and discretionary justice.

Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQs)

  1. Which case established the 'rarest of rare' doctrine?
    a) Jagmohan Singh vs. State of Uttar Pradesh
    b) Bachan Singh vs. State of Punjab
    c) Machhi Singh vs. State of Punjab
    d) Mithu vs. State of Punjab
    Answer: b) Bachan Singh vs. State of Punjab

  2. Which judgment provided categories for awarding the death penalty under the 'rarest of rare' doctrine?
    a) Bachan Singh vs. State of Punjab
    b) Jagmohan Singh vs. State of Uttar Pradesh
    c) Mithu vs. State of Punjab
    d) Machhi Singh vs. State of Punjab
    Answer: d) Machhi Singh vs. State of Punjab

  3. What did Mithu vs. State of Punjab (1983) rule about the death penalty?
    a) It upheld the death penalty’s constitutionality.
    b) It introduced mandatory death sentences.
    c) It struck down Section 303 IPC (mandatory death penalty).
    d) It restricted the doctrine’s scope.
    Answer: c) It struck down Section 303 IPC (mandatory death penalty).

  4. Which article of the Indian Constitution is directly related to the right to life?
    a) Article 14
    b) Article 19
    c) Article 21
    d) Article 22
    Answer: c) Article 21

  5. Which of the following is not a category under the 'rarest of rare' doctrine?
    a) Manner of crime
    b) Political motivation
    c) Magnitude of the crime
    d) Victim’s vulnerability
    Answer: b) Political motivation


Mains Question

“Discuss the evolution of the 'rarest of rare' doctrine in India’s legal system. How does it balance judicial discretion with constitutional safeguards in awarding the death penalty?”

Also Read:

Ambedkar and Pragmatism

Ambedkar and Pragmatism


Ambedkar’s Intellectual Influences:
During his studies at Columbia University, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was deeply influenced by John Dewey’s philosophy of pragmatism, which emphasized democracy as a way of life requiring active citizen participation. Dewey’s thoughts on education and social justice shaped Ambedkar’s belief in constitutional democracy. However, Ambedkar’s vision extended beyond Dewey.

He was also inspired by:

  • Mahatma Phule’s Anti-Caste Philosophy
  • Kabir’s Mystical Humanism
  • Fabian Socialism’s Economic Principles

Ambedkar’s lived experiences with untouchability and systemic caste oppression led him to conclude that caste could not be reformed but needed complete annihilation. This realization culminated in his adoption of Buddhism, offering him an ethical framework for spiritual and social liberation.

Broader Contributions:
Ambedkar’s vision of social justice went beyond pragmatic reforms, emphasizing radical social transformation to ensure equality and dignity for all.


Relevance to UPSC Exam Syllabus:

GS Paper 1 (Modern Indian History & Society):

  • Role in social reforms
  • Vision for social justice

GS Paper 2 (Polity & Governance):

  • Constitutional contributions
  • Ideas on democracy and state engagement

GS Paper 4 (Ethics):

  • Emphasis on justice, caste abolition, and ethical governance

Essay Paper:
Themes of Ambedkar’s pragmatism vs. radical reform, social justice, and constitutional morality.


Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQs) for UPSC CSE:

  1. Which philosopher influenced Ambedkar’s belief in democracy as a way of life?
    A) Karl Marx
    B) John Dewey
    C) Mahatma Phule
    D) Adam Smith
    Answer: B) John Dewey

  2. Ambedkar’s adoption of Buddhism was primarily influenced by:
    A) Political reforms
    B) Economic policies
    C) Social and spiritual liberation
    D) Cultural diversity
    Answer: C) Social and spiritual liberation

  3. Which of the following movements did Ambedkar support to annihilate caste?
    A) Fabian socialism
    B) Mystical humanism
    C) Constitutional democracy
    D) All of the above
    Answer: D) All of the above

  4. Ambedkar was influenced by Mahatma Phule’s philosophy on:
    A) Secularism
    B) Anti-caste reforms
    C) Spirituality
    D) Modern education
    Answer: B) Anti-caste reforms

  5. Ambedkar’s radical transformation efforts were a response to:
    A) Land reforms
    B) Caste-based oppression
    C) Industrialization
    D) Education policies
    Answer: B) Caste-based oppression


Mains Question:

“Ambedkar’s vision of social justice was shaped by both pragmatic reforms and radical transformation.” Discuss how his influences and lived experiences guided his constitutional contributions and social philosophy. (250 words) 

Also Read:

India's Textile Industry: Bharat Tex 2025

 

India's Textile Industry: Bharat Tex 2025


Context: Bharat Tex 2025 in New Delhi showcased India’s advancements in the textile sector. India aims to triple exports to ₹9 lakh crore by 2030.

Overview of India’s Textile Sector

  • Global Rank: 6th largest exporter, holding 8.21% of global trade.
  • Employment: Supports over 45 million jobs directly and 100 million indirectly.
  • Export Markets: USA and EU account for 47% of exports.
  • PLI Scheme: ₹10,683 crore to boost manufacturing.

Booming Categories in Textiles

  1. Technical Textiles: High-performance for aerospace and medical sectors.
  2. Sustainable Textiles: Eco-friendly fabrics (organic cotton, bamboo).
  3. Digital Textiles: AI-driven production and IoT-based control.
  4. Handloom Textiles: Preserving artisanal heritage through handloom clusters.
  5. Man-Made Fibre: Synthetic textiles and high-value garments focus.

Key Government Schemes

  1. PM MITRA Parks: 7 mega parks with $10 billion in expected investment.
  2. PLI Scheme: Incentives for MMF and technical textiles.
  3. Samarth: Skilling 10 lakh textile workers.
  4. IPDS: Eco-friendly processing units.
  5. NHDP: Financial support for handloom weavers.
  6. Raw Material Schemes: Quality enhancement for cotton, jute, silk, wool.

Challenges

  • Trade Deficit: Dependence on synthetic fiber imports and competition from China, Bangladesh.
  • Technology Gaps: Slow adoption of AI and automation.
  • Environmental Impact: Pollution from dyeing units.
  • Infrastructure: Need for modern parks and better logistics.
  • Skilled Workforce Shortage: Limited training in technical textiles.

Solutions

  • Strengthen FTAs with the USA and EU.
  • Encourage AI and automation in manufacturing.
  • Invest in technical textiles R&D.
  • Adopt green manufacturing practices.
  • Accelerate PM MITRA parks and policy reforms.

Conclusion:
India’s textile industry is undergoing a transformation. With policy backing, technological advancements, and Bharat Tex 2025’s initiatives, India is poised to be a global textile leader by 2030.

Here’s a table format representation of the data for India's textile industry:

Key MetricDetails
Contribution to GDP2%
Market Size (2025)USD 176 Billion
Projected Market Size (2030)USD 350 Billion
Share in Global Trade4.5%
Rank in Cotton, Polyester, Viscose, Silk2nd Largest Producer
Rank in Technical Textiles5th Largest (USD 22 Billion)
Policy SupportProactive Union and State Government Policies
EmploymentLargest employer after agriculture (45M, powered by women)

UPSC CSE MCQs

  1. Which scheme focuses on setting up mega textile parks in India?
    A) NHDP
    B) PM MITRA
    C) IPDS
    D) Samarth

    Answer: B) PM MITRA

  2. Which country accounts for the largest share of India’s textile exports?
    A) China
    B) USA
    C) Japan
    D) Germany

    Answer: B) USA

  3. What percentage of global textile trade did India hold in 2023-24?
    A) 5.2%
    B) 6.9%
    C) 8.21%
    D) 9.5%

    Answer: C) 8.21%

  4. What is the main focus of the Samarth scheme?
    A) Financial assistance
    B) Export promotion
    C) Worker skill development
    D) Technology R&D

    Answer: C) Worker skill development

  5. Which type of textiles is projected to reach $300 billion by 2047?
    A) Handloom textiles
    B) Digital textiles
    C) Technical textiles
    D) Sustainable textiles

    Answer: C) Technical textiles


Mains Question

Q: Discuss the government’s role in promoting India’s textile industry through schemes like PM MITRA and PLI. How can these schemes enhance India’s global textile competitiveness?

Also Read:

India-Qatar Strategic Partnership

 

India-Qatar Strategic Partnership


GS Paper 2: India-Qatar Relations
Source: PIB

Context:
India and Qatar elevated bilateral ties to a strategic partnership in 2025, focusing on trade, energy, and investments with the goal of doubling bilateral trade by 2030.


Key Outcomes of India-Qatar Summit 2025

  1. Strategic Partnership Agreement: Focus on trade, security, and innovation.
  2. Trade Expansion: Target to increase trade to $30 billion by 2030.
  3. Energy Deal: A 20-year LNG supply deal signed.
  4. Investment: Qatar Investment Authority pledged $10 billion for Indian infrastructure.
  5. Digital Payments: UPI rollout in Qatar and Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement signed.

Key Areas of Cooperation

1. Trade & Investment:

  • Qatar: India’s largest LNG supplier (FY 2023-24).
  • Expanding Qatar’s investment in smart cities, ports, and technology.

2. Energy Security:

  • 20-year LNG supply (2028-2048).
  • Renewable cooperation: green hydrogen and solar power.

3. Technology & Innovation:

  • Joint AI, IoT, and robotics initiatives.
  • Indian startups to participate in Doha’s Web Summit (2024-25).

4. Financial Integration:

  • UPI launched in Qatar for cross-border payments.
  • Qatar Investment Authority (QIA) opened a branch in India.

5. People-to-People Ties:

  • 830,000 Indians contribute to Qatar’s workforce.
  • MoUs for cooperation in education, culture, and youth affairs.

6. Security & Counter-Terrorism:

  • Intelligence sharing, anti-money laundering, and cybercrime cooperation.
  • Joint efforts against terrorism.

Challenges

  1. Trade Imbalance: India’s imports far outweigh exports.
  2. Labor Welfare Issues: Concerns over working conditions.
  3. Geopolitical Sensitivities: Qatar’s role in West Asian conflicts.
  4. Legal Hurdles: Pending prisoner transfer agreements.
  5. Naval Veterans Case: Detention of an Indian Navy officer.

Way Forward

  • Boost high-value exports (pharmaceuticals, IT).
  • Expedite India-Qatar Bilateral Investment Treaty.
  • Strengthen labor protections.
  • Collaborate on renewable energy partnerships.
  • Increase ministerial-level diplomatic exchanges.

Conclusion:

The India-Qatar strategic partnership aims for enhanced cooperation in energy, trade, and technology. By addressing challenges and diversifying engagement, both nations will foster regional stability and long-term economic growth.


MCQs for UPSC CSE

  1. Which country is India’s largest supplier of LNG in FY 2023-24?
    a) Iran
    b) Qatar
    c) Saudi Arabia
    d) UAE

  2. The target for India-Qatar bilateral trade by 2030 is:
    a) $20 billion
    b) $25 billion
    c) $30 billion
    d) $35 billion

  3. India-Qatar relations were elevated to a strategic partnership in:
    a) 2023
    b) 2024
    c) 2025
    d) 2026

  4. Qatar Investment Authority (QIA) pledged how much for Indian infrastructure investment?
    a) $5 billion
    b) $8 billion
    c) $10 billion
    d) $12 billion

  5. UPI rollout in Qatar aims to:
    a) Improve bilateral trade
    b) Facilitate cross-border digital payments
    c) Promote tourism
    d) Reduce energy dependence

Answers: 1-b, 2-c, 3-c, 4-c, 5-b


Mains Question (GS Paper 2):

India’s strategic partnership with Qatar highlights a new era of bilateral cooperation. Discuss the areas of cooperation and challenges in India-Qatar relations, with suggestions for improving bilateral ties.

Also Read:

Constitutional Morality

 

Constitutional Morality


Introduction:
Constitutional morality is the adherence to constitutional values beyond legal compliance. It ensures justice, equality, liberty, and accountability in governance. The concept became prominent with Dr. B.R. Ambedkar’s emphasis on its importance in Indian democracy.

Key Features:

  1. Supremacy of Constitutional Law: Governance is bound by constitutional principles.
  2. Freedom with Restraint: Balances individual rights with institutional respect.
  3. Checks & Balances: Ensures judicial and parliamentary oversight.
  4. Pluralism & Inclusivity: Protects diversity, secularism, and individual dignity.
  5. Critique Within Framework: Allows questioning laws with constitutional respect.

Constitutional Morality in Indian Constitution:

  1. Preamble: Establishes core democratic values—justice, equality, and liberty.
  2. Fundamental Rights: Guarantees rights like equality (Article 14) and freedom (Article 21).
  3. DPSP: Promotes social and economic justice.
  4. Judicial Interpretation: Landmark cases like Navtej Johar (2018) and K.S. Puttaswamy (2018) highlight its importance.

Significance:

  • Rule of Law: Ensures constitutional supremacy over arbitrariness.
  • Democratic Stability: Prevents majority dominance and protects minority rights.
  • Ethical Governance: Guides state actions based on fairness.
  • Judicial Accountability: Empowers courts to strike down unconstitutional laws.

Challenges:

  • Political Manipulation: Misuse of agencies erodes trust.
  • Public Morality vs. Constitutional Morality: Sabarimala case is a key example.
  • Executive Overreach: Threatens judicial independence.
  • Lack of Awareness: Limited constitutional literacy hinders governance.

Way Forward:

  1. Strengthen Judicial Oversight: Courts must uphold constitutional values.
  2. Civic Education: Promote constitutional literacy in schools.
  3. Ethical Governance: Train officials in constitutional ethics.
  4. Institutional Reforms: Empower independent institutions.
  5. Inclusive Legislation: Ensure laws align with constitutional values.

Conclusion:

Constitutional morality is essential for a robust democracy, ensuring justice, equality, and accountability. Judicial activism, public awareness, and ethical governance will further solidify constitutional morality in India’s democratic framework.


MCQs for UPSC CSE:

  1. Which of the following cases is associated with the right to privacy in India?
    A) Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India
    B) K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
    C) Krishnamoorthy v. Union of India
    D) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
    Answer: B

  2. Constitutional morality refers to adherence to:
    A) Majoritarian views
    B) Cultural beliefs
    C) Constitutional values and principles
    D) Popular public opinion
    Answer: C

  3. Which of the following constitutional provisions establishes justice, liberty, and equality?
    A) Fundamental Rights
    B) Directive Principles of State Policy
    C) Preamble
    D) Fundamental Duties
    Answer: C

  4. The case of Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India is significant for:
    A) Right to education
    B) Gender equality
    C) Decriminalization of Section 377
    D) Secularism
    Answer: C

  5. What does the concept of constitutional morality ensure in governance?
    A) Concentration of power
    B) Adherence to cultural traditions
    C) Ethical, just, and fair governance
    D) Judicial activism only
    Answer: C


Mains Question:

Q: "Constitutional morality is rooted in the Constitution and forms its democratic foundation." Discuss its significance with examples of judicial decisions.
(UPSC GS Paper 2)

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Syria World Heritage Sites

 

Syria World Heritage Sites


Context: Efforts are underway to restore Syria's war-damaged heritage sites, including Palmyra and Crac des Chevaliers, to revitalize tourism and the economy.

Palmyra:

  • Location: Syrian Desert, Homs Governorate.
  • Significance: UNESCO World Heritage Site known for Roman ruins, temples, and colonnaded streets.
  • Historical Role: A Silk Road hub and capital of the Palmyrene Empire under Queen Zenobia.

Crac des Chevaliers:

  • Location: Homs Governorate, near Al-Husn.
  • Importance: A well-preserved Crusader castle from the 12th century, used by the Knights Hospitaller during the Crusades to control key trade routes.

MCQs for UPSC CSE:

  1. Which of the following sites is known as the capital of the Palmyrene Empire under Queen Zenobia?
    a) Damascus
    b) Palmyra
    c) Aleppo
    d) Homs
    Answer: b) Palmyra

  2. Crac des Chevaliers was built primarily during which century?
    a) 10th century
    b) 11th century
    c) 12th century
    d) 13th century
    Answer: c) 12th century

  3. Which of the following played a critical role in controlling trade routes during the Crusades?
    a) Palmyra
    b) Crac des Chevaliers
    c) Petra
    d) Baalbek
    Answer: b) Crac des Chevaliers

  4. Palmyra is located in which Syrian governorate?
    a) Hama
    b) Idlib
    c) Homs
    d) Deir ez-Zor
    Answer: c) Homs

  5. Which organization designates sites as World Heritage Sites?
    a) WHO
    b) UNESCO
    c) WTO
    d) IMF
    Answer: b) UNESCO


Mains Question for UPSC CSE:

Discuss the significance of heritage site restoration efforts in post-conflict regions like Syria. How can these efforts aid in economic revitalization and cultural preservation?

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Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC)

 

Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC)


What it is:
The DICGC is a subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) providing deposit insurance to protect bank depositors’ money during bank failures.

History:

  • Considered in 1948 after Bengal banking crises.
  • Enacted in 1961 as the Deposit Insurance Corporation Act.
  • Merged with Credit Guarantee Corporation in 1978 under the Ministry of Finance.

Functions:

  • Insures bank deposits.
  • Provides credit guarantees for priority sectors.

Features:

  • Deposit limit: ₹5 lakh per depositor.
  • Covers savings, fixed, current, and recurring deposits.
  • Does not cover government deposits or foreign deposits.

MCQs for UPSC CSE:

  1. Which organization provides deposit insurance in India?
    A) SEBI
    B) NABARD
    C) DICGC
    D) EXIM Bank

    Answer: C) DICGC

  2. What is the maximum deposit insurance limit under DICGC?
    A) ₹1 lakh
    B) ₹2 lakh
    C) ₹5 lakh
    D) ₹10 lakh

    Answer: C) ₹5 lakh

  3. When was the DICGC formed by merging the Deposit Insurance Corporation and the Credit Guarantee Corporation?
    A) 1961
    B) 1978
    C) 1985
    D) 2000

    Answer: B) 1978


Mains Question:

Discuss the role of the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) in safeguarding depositor confidence in the Indian banking system. Highlight its features, coverage, and recent changes.

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